Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase

a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Implementation and execution
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Ans: A

One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric values. Identify the Valid Equivalence class

a) BOOK
b) Book
c) Boo01k
d) book

Ans: c

Static analysis is best described as:

a) The analysis of batch programs.
b) The reviewing of test plans.
c) The analysis of program code.
d) The use of black box testing.

Ans: c

Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the interfaces and in the interaction between integrated components is :

a) System Level Testing
b) Integration Level Testing
c) Unit Level Testing
d) Component Testing

Ans: b

Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?

a) Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
b) Logging the outcome of test execution.
c) Assessing if more tests are needed.
d) Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.

Ans: b



Testing where in we subject the target of the test , to varying workloads to measure and evaluate the performance behaviors and ability of the target and of the test to continue to function properly under these different workloads.

a) Load Testing
b) Integration Testing
c) System Testing
d) Usability Testing

Ans: a






A Type of functional Testing, which investigates the functions relating to detection of threats, such as virus from malicious outsiders.

a) Security Testing
b) Recovery Testing
c) Performance Testing
d) Functionality Testing

Ans: a


Incidents would not be raised against:

a) requirements
b) documentation
c) test cases
d) improvements suggested by users

Ans: d





What can static analysis NOT find?

a) the use of a variable before it has been defined
b) unreachable (“dead”) code
c) memory leaks
d) array bound violations

Ans: c

Which of the following is a Key Characteristics of Walk Through

a) Scenario , Dry Run , Peer Group
b) Pre Meeting Preparations
c) Formal Follow Up Process
d) Includes Metrics

Ans: a

Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review :

i. Manager
ii. Moderator
iii. Scribe / Recorder
iv. Assistant Manager
a) i,ii,iii,iv are true
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
c) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
d) i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

Ans: b

A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were identified during a formal review.

a) Moderator.
b) Scribe
c) Author
d) Manager

Ans: b

The Planning phase of a formal review includes the following :

a) Explaining the objectives
b) Selecting the personnel, allocating roles.
c) Follow up
d) Individual Meeting preparations

Ans: b

Which of the following is the task of a Tester? | Manual Testing

i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data
iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.
iv. Create the Test Specifications
a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

Ans: b

In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to :

i. Determine the test technique to be employed
ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.
iv. Determine the cost of the project
a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i is false

Ans: b

A Project risk includes which of the following

a) Organizational Factors
b) Poor Software characteristics
c) Error Prone software delivered.
d) Software that does not perform its intended functions

Ans: a

Which of the following techniques is NOT a White box technique?

a) Statement Testing and coverage
b) Decision Testing and coverage
c) Condition Coverage
d) Boundary value analysis

Ans: d





Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase

a) Creating test suites from the test cases
b) Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools
c) Comparing actual results
d) Designing the Tests

Ans: d




Exhaustive Testing is __________ ?

a) Is impractical but possible
b) Is practically possible
c) Is impractical and impossible
d) Is always possible

Ans: a

The Test Cases Derived from use cases

a) Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the system
b) Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of the system
c) Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of the system
d) Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level

Ans: a

What is an equivalence partition (also known as an equivalence class)?

a) A set of test cases for testing classes of objects
b) An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range becomes a test case
c) An input or output range of values such that each value in the range becomes a test case
d) An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the range becomes a test case.


Ans: b

White Box Techniques are also called as :

a) Structural Testing
b) Design Based Testing
c) Error Guessing Technique
d) Experience Based Technique

Ans: a

A Plan to overcome the risk called as | Manual Testing

a) Migration Plan
b) Master plan
c) Maintenance plan
d) Mitigation Plan

Ans: d

The Phases of formal review process is mentioned below arrange them in the correct order. | Manual Testing

i. Planning
ii. Review Meeting
iii. Rework
iv. Individual Preparations
v. Kick Off
vi. Follow Up
a) i,ii,iii,iv,v,vi
b) vi,i,ii,iii,iv,v
c) i,v,iv,ii,iii,vi
d) i,ii,iii,v,iv,vi
Ans: C

Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:


i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author).
ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations
iii. Formal Follow up process.
iv. Main Objective is to find defects
a) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
b) i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,iii,iv are false and ii is true
d) iii is true and i,ii,iv are false
answer : b

Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance Testing:


a) Breadth Test and Depth Test
b) Retesting
c) Confirmation Testing
d) Sanity Testing
answer : a

Manual Testing Multiple Choice Questions and Answers for Freshers & Experienced pdf free download

0.  What are the Testing Levels?
1.  Cost of quality = Prevention Cost + Appraisal cost + Failure cost
2.  A useful tool to visualize, clarify, link, identify, and classify possible cause of a problem. This is also called as “fishbone diagram” what is this?
3.  It measures the quality of processes used to create a quality product.
4.  Variance from product specifications is called?
5.  Verification is _________.
6.  White box testing is not called as___________.
7.  Name the events that will be analyzed, Count the named incidents, Rank the count by frequency using a bar chart & Validate reasonableness of the analysis is called as
8.  Retesting of a single program or component after a change has been made?
9.  Requirement and Analysis, Design, Development or Coding, Testing and Maintenance is called as Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)
10. The testing which is done by going thro' the code is known as,
11. Configuration Management Plan describes the Configuration Management procedures and structures to be used.
12. This type of testing method attempts to find incorrect or missing functions, errors in data structures or external database access, interface errors, Performance errors and initialization and Termination errors. It is called as
13. Phase Definition. It will come under
14. Software testing which is done without planning and Documentation is known as
15. Acceptance testing is known as
16. Retesting the entire application after a change has been made called as?
17. Boundary value analysis belongs to which testing method?
18. It measures the quality of a product
19. What are the Types of Integration Testing?
20. Product Risk affects The quality or performance of the software.
21. A metric used to measure the characteristic of documentation and code called as
22. Which is non-functional software testing?
23. The process that deals with the technical and management issues of software development called as?
24. Executing the same test case on a modified build called as
25. Which is Black-Box Testing method?
26. Business Risk affects The Organization developing or Procuring the software.
27. Stratification is a Technique used to analyze/divide a universe of data into homogeneous groups.
28. Automation Testing should be done before starting Manual testing.
29. Earlier a defect is found the cheaper it is to fix it.
30. Informing to the developer which bug to be fix first is called as
31. Software Testing is a process of evaluating a system by manual or automatic means and verify that it satisfies specified requirements or identity differences between expected and actual results.
32. Retesting modules connected to the program or component after a change has been made?
33. An Important metric is the number of defects found in internal testing compared to the defects found in customer tests, Status of test activities against the plan, Test coverage achieved so far, comes under
34. Alpha testing will be done at,
35. SPICE Means _______.
36. Requirements Specification, Planning, Test case Design, Execution, Bug Reporting & Maintenance This Life Cycle comes Under
37. It provides a set of levels and an assessment model, and presents a set of recommended practices that allow organizations to improve their testing processes.
38. Standards and procedures for managing changes in an evolving software product is called?
39. Path Tested = Number of Path Tested / Total Number of Paths
40. This Testing Technique examines the basic program structure and it derives the test data from the program logic; Ensuring that all statements and conditions executed at least once. It is called as
41. This type of test include, how well the user will be able to understand and interact with the system?
42. Defects generally fall into the following categories?
43. What is correct Software Process Cycle?
44. Conducted to validate that the application, database, and network they may be running on can handle projected volumes of users and data effectively. The test is conducted jointly by developers, testers, DBA’s and network associates after the system Testing called as
45. Maintenance Plan predicts the maintenance requirements of the system, maintenance costs and effort required
46. Beta testing will be done by
47. Validation plan describes the approach ,resources and schedule used for system validation
48. Integration, It will come under
49. Types of quality tools are Problem Identification Tools and Problem Analysis Tools.
50. Which Software Development Life cycle model will require to start Testing Activities when starting development activities itself
51. A metric used to measure the characteristic of the methods, Techniques and tools employed in developing, implementing and maintaining the software system called as
52. Check Sheet(Checklist) is considered a simple , but powerful statistical tool because it differentiates between two extremes.
53. Application should be stable. Clear Design and Flow of the application is needed for Automation testing.
54. Quality plan describes the quality procedures and standards that will be used in a project.
55. How severely the bug is effecting the application is called as
56. Project Risk affects The Schedule or Resources.
57. The name of the testing which is done to make sure the existing features are not affected by new changes
58. Management and Measurement, It will come under
59. AdHoc testing is a part of
60. Cost of Production = Right The First time cost(RTF) + Cost of Quality.
61. ------------- means under what test environment(Hardware, software set up. the application will run smoothly
62. TQM represents ________.
63. Optimization, Defect Prevention, and Quality Control. Its come under the
64. Unit Testing will be done by
65. Beta testing will be done at
66. A Plan to overcome the risk called as
67. Which of the following is not one of the techniques to find defects
68. Quality Assurance methods are usually considered
69. Who has the primary responsibility of setting the quality culture in the organization?
70. Verification is ________.
71.  A Regression test is
72. If an expected result is not specified then:
73. Which of the following is not a static testing technique
74. Which of the following statements about component testing is not true?
75. During which test activity could faults be found most cost effectively?
76. The purpose of requirement phase is
77. Which, in general, is the least required skill of a good tester?
78. The process starting with the terminal modules is called
79. The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from
80. Function/Test matrix is a type of
81. Defect Management process does not include
82. Software testing accounts to what percent of software development costs?
83. How much testing is enough
84. Which of the following is not a characteristic for Testability?
85. Which of these can be successfully tested using Loop Testing methodology?
86. Inspections can find all the following except
87. When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
88. What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:
89. Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:
90. The main focus of acceptance testing is:
91. Expected results are:
92. Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:
93. Which of the following is not part of performance testing:
94. Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?
95. During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?
96. Acceptance test cases are based on what?
97. Independent Verification & Validation is
98. Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?
99. Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
100. Test cases are designed during:

What is the primary purpose of a Web Service Connector? | WebMethods

The purpose of Web Service Connector is to invoke a Web Service on a different web server Start up service will execute whenever the package is loaded or re-loaded

How to preserve existing pipeline before a restorePipeline step ? | WebMethods

Set the "$merge" variable in restorePipeline or "merge" in restorePipelineFromFile to be true. This will ensure that everything in the pipeline before a restorePipeline step is preserved.

How should I organise connection pools ? | WebMethods

If you have adapter notifications and adapter services then you will need to have two separate connections. Otherwise you may get strange errors about transactions and the like. You should also avoid having connection pools shared across different functional areas, even if they are pointing to the same database. The reason for this is that tuning the size of the pool becomes quite difficult if you have multiple types of usage of a pool. You are also unable to easily change the database settings for one without impacting on the other. One approach that seems to work quite well is to have separate pools for each package (generally.. not a hard and fast rule though), as your packages should generally be divided up according to functional area too.

How do I sort using the JDBC select adapter service? | WebMethods

Although there is no tab to specify "order by" the same functionality is able to be specified in the "SELECT" tab. One of the columns in the is labelled "Sort Order" which will allow you to specify the column(s) you wish to sort by. To alter the order: simply alter the order of the columns selected.

How to get the current index of the List in a loop? | WebMethods

There is a special variable on the pipeline called $iteration which will be incremented as the loop operator works up through the list.

How do I throw an exception when using a try-catch block ? | WebMethods

Set a flag in your catch block or leave a variable holding the error message in the pipeline.
Outside the catch block put a branch on that variable or flag and if it is non-null then exit with failure or call the service that generates the exception.

How do I see the java code for my flow service ? | WebMethods

Flow is not turned into java code. It resides on disk as XML representing the flow operations which is then parsed and turned into an in-memory java tree of the operations. Although the underlying code that implements the flow operations is java, it is stored on disk as XML.

What is the difference between drop and delete pipeline variable? | WebMethods

Drop pipeline is an explicit cleanup. It is a request for the pipeline to remove a variable from the available list of variables and make the object it refers to available for garbage collection by the Java Virtual Machine.
Delete is purely a design time operation to remove the variable from the current view. It is only of use if you have created a variable that you didn't mean to create. If you delete a variable that was there because it was previously in the pipeline when you change the view in developer you will see the variable appear again.

How do I debug the Developer IDE itself ? | WebMethods

Start the developer up in debug mode, similar to the Integration server:

cd pathToWMInstall/Developer/bin
developer.bat -debug 10

How do I change the JVM used by Integration Server? | WebMethods

To change to the JDK used by webMethods you will need to edit the IntegrationServer\bin\server.bat or IntegrationServer/bin/server.sh file used to start up Integration Server.
Edit the file and change the following line to point to the JDK path

SET JAVA_DIR=C:\opt\j2sdk1.4.2

How to find dependents of a selected element on the server? | WebMethods

Right click on the element for which you have to find the dependents in the navigational pannel.and click on the option find dependents.

How to Find Elements in the Navigation Panel? | Webmethods

Just right click on the element which you want to see then u click Locate in navigation option then u can see that element in the navigation panel.

How to remove a system lock from an element? | WebMethods

System locks can be removed by making the server side files of the element as readable.right Click on the element in developer which is system locked.and choose the lock properties. It will display the server side files for the element.Make the files as readable and click the refresh button in the developer.You will find that the element is no more locked.

How to Move Flow Steps? | WebMethods

Open the webMethods developer in EditPrespective.Select the flow step u wanna move just drag it to the place you want to move.Otherwise use the arrow buttons on the editor pannel to move the selected flow steps.

What are Structural transformations ? WebMethods

Splitting one field into several or merging fields, reordering portions of a message or renaming fields are know as structural transformations.

How to Change the Order of Steps in a Flow Service? | WebMethods

We can change the Order of steps in a Flow Service of Various other services which are called in sequence within Flow service using "Shift Up and Shift Down" buttons exists at top of Editor Panel.
As well we can move any service or Map inside a SEQUENCE or BRANCH using "Shift Left and Shift Right" buttons

How ACLs Affect locking? | WebMethods

ACLS are used to give the authorization to the particular user groups.If u give ACL to administrator then the admin group users who are there in that group they can have the acess to that particular service.Otherwise we can not use it.This is called ACL locking.

How to open a session on a different server? | WebMethods

Select "session" from the menu in toolbar and click open. key in the server IP and port on which you have to open the connection.The user name and password on that server.

How to Restore a Session on a Server? | WebMethods

Developer gets disconnected from the server if the server goes down or if there is a problem in the network. Donot close the developer.If you close the developer you wont be able to save the changes.Once the server come up or the network problem is resolved. you will be automatically connected to the server and then you can retsore your session.

How to use SEQUENCE as the Target of a BRANCH? | WebMethods

Set evaluate label property of branch step to true. Then set the label property of sequence with the value on which it needs to be processed.

After a default installation, in order to use the pub.file:getFile service, what needs to be done?

pub.file:getFile does not require any modifications to the Integration Server.

The Flow Services are physically stored on the webMethods Integration Server in the form of: | WebMethods

Flow Services are physically stored on the webMethods Integration Server as "XML" files.

The Integration Server requires access to the Java classes for each JDBC driver that it will use. Typically, where must such Java classes be placed?

webMethods6\IntegrationServer\lib\jars.

If the webMethods Integration Server is started with from the server root directory with this command, "bin\server.bat -debug 9 -log none", what does this tell the server to do? | WebMethods

Start in level 9 debug mode and write all server log information to the screen.

When creating Flow services, what is the purpose of a SEQUENCE operation? | WebMethods

The purpose of Sequence operation is to group a subset of Flow operations so that they are treated as a unit.

For a REPEAT operation to execute as long as the specified repeat condition remains true, the count parameter needs to be set to:

The count parameter needs to be set to "-1 " .

When coding IS Services, how can a variable of type Document Type be represented in Java? | WebMethods

Variable of type Document Type be represented as "IData ".

How can the webMethods Integration Server logging date format be changed? | Web

By editing the watt.server.dateStampFmt parameter in the server.cnf file.

By default, the webMethods Integration Server has an HTTP listener assigned to which port?

5555.

An Integration Server package may have one or more startup services. When does a startup service execute? | Webmethods

Whenever the package is loaded or re-loaded.

What is the default behavior, if a Flow EXIT does not specify a "from"? | Webmethods

$loop will be assumed, and a com.wm.lang.flow.FlowException will be thrown if the EXIT is not in a LOOP.

What is the Branch operation? | Webmethods

Branch operation conditionally executes an operation based on the value of a variable at run time.

When you create and save the FLOW "my.pack:myFlow" in the "MyPack" package, where will you find the code? | WebMethods

In the "MyPack\ns\my\pack\myFlow\flow.xml" file.

What is the primary function of the built-in pub.flow:savePipeline service? | WebMethods

Save the current pipeline to a named memory location on the Integration Server.

When creating a BRANCH flow element, what is the purpose of the "scope" field on the properties tab?

To restrict pipeline access to only the data in this document.

What happens when the pub.flow:tracePipeline service is invoked? | WebMethods

The Integration Server logs the name-value pairs in the pipeline at that time.

How to invoke a service from a browser ? | WebMethods

Use a URL in the form:
http://servername:port/invoke/folder.subFolder.subsubFolder/serviceName
(the package name is not part of the URL in any way).

What Is the Pipeline? | WebMethods

The pipeline is the general term used to refer to the data structure in which input and output values are maintained for a flow service. It allows services in the flow to share data.The pipeline starts with the input to the flow service and collects inputs and outputs from subsequent services in the flow. When a service in the flow executes, it has access to all data in the pipeline at that point.

What Is a Flow Service? | WebMethod

A flow service is a service that is written in the webMethods flow language. This simple yet powerful language lets you encapsulate a sequence of services within a single service and manage the flow of data among them.

What Is a Startup Service? | WebMethods

A startup service is one that Integration Server automatically executes when it loads a package into memory.

What Is an Element? | WebMethods

An element is an item that exists in the Navigation panel in webMethods Developer.Elements include folders, services, specifications, IS document types, triggers, and ISschemas. In the Navigation panel, servers and packages are not considered to be elements.

What Is Developer? | WebMethods

webMethods Developer is a graphical development tool that you use to build, edit, and test integration logic. It provides an integrated development environment in which to develop the logic and supporting objects that carry out the work of an integration solution. It also provides tools for testing and debugging the solutions you create.

What are the tools of webMethods Integration ? | WebMethod

    WebMethod Tools:
  i.    webMethods Adapters
  ii.   webMethods Developer
  iii.  webMethods Integration Server
  iv.  webMethods Integration Platform
  v.   webMethods Broker
  vi.  webMethods Monitor
  vii. webMethods Optimize for Infrastructure
  viii. webMethods Trading Networks
  ix.  webMethods EDI Module
  x.  webMethods EDIINT
  xi. webMethods eStandards Modules
  xii. webMethods PIM

What are the modules of webMethods Product Suite? | WebMethods

 WebMethods Product Suite Modules:
  i.    Integration and B2B
  ii.   Service Oriented Architecture
  iii.  Business Process Management
  iv.  Business Activity Monitoring

What is WebMethods?

A company that provides integration tools. The key products include Integration Server, Enterprise Server, Business Integrator, Workflow and Mainframe Integration Server. WebMethods is a company, not a product.

What are the main companies which provide EAI tools / software? | WebMethods

  The below companies are provide EAI tools:
    i. TIBCO
    ii. webMethods
    iii. Vitria
    iv. iPlanet
    v. MQSeries (IBM)
    vi. iPlanet
    vii. BizTalk (Microsoft)
    viii. WebLogic (BEA)
 

What are the disadvantages of EAI? | Web Methods

The main disadvatages of using EAI systems:

   i. Constant change: The very nature of EAI is dynamic and requires dynamic project managers to manage their implementation.
   ii. Lack of EAI experts : EAI requires knowledge of many issues and technical aspects.
   iii. EAI is a tool paradigm: EAI is not a tool, but rather a system and should be implemented as such.
   iv. Building interfaces is an art : Engineering the solution is not sufficient. Solutions need to be negotiated with user departments to reach a common consensus on the final outcome. A lack of consensus on interface designs leads to excessive effort to map between various systems data requirements.
   v. Loss of detail : Information that seemed unimportant at an earlier stage may become crucial later.
  vi.  Accountability : Since so many departments have many conflicting requirements, there should be clear accountability for the system's final structure.

What are the Advantages of EAI? | WebMethods

Advantages of EAI solutions are:
    i.  Streamlines business processes and helps raise organizational efficiency.
    ii. Real time information access among systems.
    iii. Maintains information integrity across multiple systems.
    iv. Speedier transactions at reduced costs.
 If one of the applications misbehaves and requires to be shut down for maintenance, then with EAI, we can easily “decouple” it from rest of the systems. Which avoids having to bring down other systems.

What are the Major categories of EAI? | WebMethods

Integration can be at different application layers:
  1.    Data Level Integration:
  2.    Batch data transfer, OR
  3.    On-line propagation of data updates
  4.    API Level Integration:
  5.    Data is accessed through published API services
  6.    Service Method Level Integration:
  7.    Common services shared by different applications
  8.    User Interface Level Integration:The controller reacts to the user input. It creates and sets the model.
  9.    Common user interface (e.g. web based) for unified access to multiple applications.

What is EAI ? | WebMethods

EAI or Enterprise Applications Integration can be defined as data that can be integrated from disparate applications regardless of the platform, allowing the sharing of business processes amongst multiple organizations.

WebMethods Interview Questions and Answers for Freshers & Experienced PDF Free download

Latest WebMethods Interview Questions and Answers for Freshers and Experienced PDF Free download
1. What is EAI ?
2. What are the Major categories of EAI?
3. What are the Advantages of EAI?
4. What are the disadvantages of EAI?
5. What are the main companies which provide EAI tools / software?
6. What is webMethods?
7. What are the modules of webMethods Product Suite?
8. What are the tools of webMethods Integration ?
9. What Is Developer?
10. What Is an Element?
11. What Is a Startup Service?
12. What Is a Flow Service?
13. What Is the Pipeline?
14. How to invoke a service from a browser ?
15. What happens when the pub.flow:tracePipeline service is invoked?
16. When creating a BRANCH flow element, what is the purpose of the "scope" field on the properties tab?
17. What is the primary function of the built-in pub.flow:savePipeline service?
18. When you create and save the FLOW "my.pack:myFlow" in the "MyPack" package, where will you find the code?
19. What is the Branch operation?
20. What is the default behavior, if a Flow EXIT does not specify a "from"?
21. An Integration Server package may have one or more startup services. When does a startup service execute?
22. By default, the webMethods Integration Server has an HTTP listener assigned to which port?
23. How can the webMethods Integration Server logging date format be changed?
24. When coding IS Services, how can a variable of type Document Type be represented in Java?
25. For a REPEAT operation to execute as long as the specified repeat condition remains true, the count parameter needs to be set to:
26. When creating Flow services, what is the purpose of a SEQUENCE operation?
27. If the webMethods Integration Server is started with from the server root directory with this command, "bin\server.bat -debug 9 -log none", what does this tell the server to do?
28. The Integration Server requires access to the Java classes for each JDBC driver that it will use. Typically, where must such Java classes be placed?
29. The Fow Services are physically stored on the webMethods Integration Server in the form of:
30. After a default installation, in order to use the pub.file:getFile service, what needs to be done?
31. How to use SEQUENCE as the Target of a BRANCH?
32. How to Restore a Session on a Server?
33. How to open a session on a different server?
34. How ACLs Affect locking?
35. How to Change the Order of Steps in a Flow Service?
36. What are Structural transformations ?
37. How to Move Flow Steps?
38. How to remove a system lock from an element?
39. How to Find Elements in the Navigation Panel?
40. How to find dependents of a selected element on the server?
41. How do I change the JVM used by Integration Server?
42. How do I debug the Developer IDE itself ?
43. What is the difference between drop and delete pipeline variable?
44. How do I see the java code for my flow service ?
45. How do I throw an exception when using a try-catch block ?
46. How to get the current index of the List in a loop?
47. How do I sort using the JDBC select adapter service?
48. How should I organise connection pools ?
49. How to preserve existing pipeline before a restore Pipeline step ?
50. What is the primary purpose of a Web Service Connector?

Virtusa Placement Papers

Virtusa Placement Paper & Interview Pattern on 2010

1.verbal
2.analytical
3. programming ability
4.domain knowledge (C or Java)
5.learning ability
6.English test

Verbal Section consists of questions like Articles, prepositions, correction of sentences etc.

Analytical Section consists of some reasoning questions like coding and decoding series, reading comprehensions and some aptitude questions.

Programming ability and domain knowledge questions consists of questions like find out the output and some questions on data structures like.

Question: Which is the worst case complexity of quick sort?
Questions are bit easy but time taking .Programming ability questions consists of questions like finding the output of program which consist of some 24 loops etc

Learning ability Section in this section they will give a passage we have to read in 10 minutes. we have see main points of the passage and remember them .they will take off the paper and will give paper consisting of 10 questions on paper .they wont even allow us to write on a paper while reading the passage. so guys. be careful while reading. I got a passage on “usage of plastic bags” .

English test .We have given a situation like
Digi comp company gives a printer cartridge free for every PC.One customer got a complaint with cartridge and reported it to company. imagine you are the company manager and write a letter to the customer indicating that you will replace the cartridge if necessary and also send their technician. we have completed the exam and waited for nearly 5 hrs for results. finally we got results at about 8 p.m. and i got short listed for technical interview. The next day we had technical interview.

Technical Interview was a stress interview for me. The interviewer criticized me on my resume. and i kept smiling at him whatever he speak guys .they will test our patience. be cool and confident while answering your questions. that’s it you can crack the interview be prepared for data structures and C. I was short listed for HR round .it was very cool .he asked me some general hr questions like ..why virtusa?. tell me about yourself, hobbies, strengths, weaknesses. and at last our results were announced at morning 3.30 AM. and finally I got placed in virtusa. I think my experience would help you to get through virtusa placement..

VALUE LABS Placement Paper

VALUE LABS Placement Paper @ Hyderabad On 2007

Here is the pattern

1.Verbal( 9 questions)

it is very easy one total 9 questions are there , some are spelling corrections , some antonyms and synonyms, easy ones, i didn’t remember the questions

2.Aptitude(7 questions)

this is also easy one, i got
1.numerical problems,
2. what is the angle when the time is quarter past 9,
3.one problem like there are hens and cows the legs r double the number of heads then how many hens r there,
4.if one number is divided by 10 it gives 9 , if divided by 9 gives 8 as reminder, with 8 gives 7………….and if 2 gives i what is that number.
5.problem on interest , like for a given amount 4500 the rate for some amount is 4 % and for the rest of amount it is 6 %, even though he is getting the same amount what is the average rate
6. one person A sold his flat to B for 10% gain , again b sold his flat for 10%loss, what is the deal given for A by B
7.some thing related to % problem (error)
3.Analytical
this one is very very easy
1.if a word RESULT is represented as 346751 and CAM E is represented as 4651 not the same like this one
2. if word MANAGER represents as AAEGMNR then what should SANDEEP represents not the same, like this one
3.problem on streams
4. and 4 more easy questions easy one , you can mark by seeing them
4 .Basic computers
all easy questions like
1.wat is IP
2. identify the binary number given below
3.wat is other name for mother board (system board)
4.wat is the first micro processor(8088)
like this easy ones
here only I lost with out attempting the 4th section because lack of pattern (i.e. timer shown by computer)
so friend’s beware of this model, I know this will help you a lot , all the best for you all
all the remaining rounds are common i.e. gd, tech1, tech + hr all are depending upon your resume.

TCS Placement Paper V

TCS Placement Paper & Interview On 2010 @ Noida

Aptitude Paper:

1. There are 150 weights. Some are 1 kg weights and some are 2 kg weights. The sum of the weights is 260. What is the number of 1kg weights?
Ans: 40

2. A is driving on a highway when the police fines him for over speeding and exceeding the limit by 10 km/hr. At the same time B is fined for over speeding by twice the amount by which A exceeded the limit. If he was driving at 35 km/hr what is the speed limit for the road?
Ans: 15 kmph

3. A moves 3 kms east from his starting point . He then travels 5 kms north. From that point he moves 8 kms to the east. How far is A from his starting point?
Ans: 13 kms

4. A car travels 12 kms with a 4/5th filled tank. How far will the car travel with 1/3 filled tank?
Ans: 5 kms

5. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 8. When 18 is added to the number, the digits are reversed. Find the number?
Ans: 35

6. The cost of one pencil, two pens and four erasers is Rs.22 while the cost of five pencils, four pens and two erasers is Rs.32.How much will three pencils, three pens and three erasers cost?
Ans: 27

7. Fathers age is 5 times his son’s age. 4 years back the father was 9 times older than son. Find the fathers’ present age.
Ans: 40 years

8. What number should be added to or subtracted from each term of the ratio17 : 24 so that it becomes equal to  1 : 2 ?
Ans: 10 should be subtracted

9. What is the 12th term of the series 2, 5, 8, ….
Ans: 35

10. If 20 men take 15 days to to complete a job, in how many days can 25 men finish that work?
Ans: 12 days

11. In a fraction, if 1 is added to both the numerator at the denominator, the fraction becomes 1/2. If numerator is subtracted from the denominator, the fraction becomes 3/4. Find the fraction.
Ans. 3/7

12. If Rs.1260 is divided between between A, B and C in the ratio 2:3:4, what is C’s share?
Ans: Rs. 560

13. A shopkeeper bought a watch for Rs.400 and sold it for Rs.500.What is his profit percentage?
Ans: 25%

14. What percent of 60 is 12?
Ans: 20%

15. Hansie made the following amounts in seven games of cricket in India: Rs.10, Rs.15, Rs.21, Rs.12, Rs.18, Rs.19 and Rs.17(all figures in crores of course).Find his average earnings.
Ans: Rs.16 crore

16. If two pencils cost 8 cents, then how much do 5 pencils cost?
Ans: 20 cents

17. Some work is done by two people in 24 minutes. One of them can do this work alone in 40 minutes. How much time does the second person take to do the same work ?
Ans: 60 minutes

18. A car is filled with four and half gallons of fuel for a round trip.If the amount of fuel taken while going is 1/4 more than the amount taken for coming, what is the amount of fuel consumed while coming back?
Ans: 2 gallons

19. The lowest temperature in the night in a city A is 1/3 more than 1/2 the highest during the day. Sum of the lowest temperature and the highest temperature is 100 degrees. Then what is the low temp?
Ans: 40 degrees

20. Javagal, who decided to go to weekened trip should not exceed 8 hours driving in a day. The average speed of forward journey is 40 miles/hr.Due to traffic on sundays, the return journey’s average speed is 30 m/h. How far he can select a picnic spot?
Ans: 120 miles

21. A salesperson by mistake multiplied a number and got the answer as 3, instead of dividing the number by  3.What is the answer he should have actually got?
Ans: 3

22. A building with height D shadow upto G. What is the height of a neighbouring building with a shadow of C feet.
Ans: (C*D)/G

23. A person was fined for exceeding the speed limit by 10 mph. Another person was also fined for exceeding the same speed limit by twice the same. If the second person was travelling at a speed of 35 mph, find the speed limit.
Ans: 15 mph

24 A bus started from bus stand at 8.00am, and after staying for 30 minutes at a destination, it returned back to the bus stand. The destination is 27 miles from the bus stand. The speed of the bus is 18mph. During the return journey bus travels with 50% faster speed. At what time does it return to the bus stand?
Ans: 11.00am

25. In a mixture, R is 2 parts and S is 1 part. In order to make S to 25% of the mixture, how much of R is to be added?
Ans: One part of R

26. Wind flows 160 miles in 330 min, for travelling 80 miles how much time does it require?
Ans: 2 hrs 45 mins

27. With a 4/5 full tank a vehicle can travel 12 miles, how far can it travel with a 1/3 full tank
Ans: 5 miles

28. There are two trees in a lawn. One grows at a rate 3/5 of the other in 4 years. If the total growth of trees is 8 ft. What is the height of the smaller tree after 2 years
Ans: 1 1/2 feet

29. Refer to the figure below. A ship started from P and moves at a speed of I miles per hour and another ship starts from L and moving with H miles per hour simultaneously .Where do the two ships meet?
||—g—||—h—||—i—||—j—||—k—||—l—||
PG H I J K L are the various stops in between denoted by || . The values g, h, i, j, k, l denote the distance between the ports.
Ans: Between I and J, closer to J

30. If A is travelling at 72 km per hour on a highway. B is travelling at a speed of 25 meters per second on a highway. What is the difference in their speeds in m/sec.
Ans: 1 m/sec

31. If the word ‘ddosszm’ is changed to ‘central’ then what will be the change for ‘rtjbl’ ?
Ans: quick

32. The word unimpressive was given.they asked us to do change 1st & 2nd,3rd & 4th,so on.then they asked what will be 10th letter from right?
Ans: m

33. The ques on a man,a woman and a boy finish work together in 6 days.man takes 10 days,woman takes 24 days then how much boy will take?
Ans: 40 days

34. If DDMUQZM is coded as CENTRAL then RBDJK can be coded as ———
Ans: QCEIL

35. In the word ECONOMETRICS, if the first and second , third and forth ,forth and fifth, fifth and sixth words are interchanged up to the last letter, what would be the tenth letter from right?
Ans: word is CENOMOTEIRSC tenth word is R

36. Find the physical quantity in units from the equation: (Force*Distance)/(Velocity*Velocity)
Ans: Ns2/m

37. Find the value of @@+25-++@16, where @ denotes “square” and + denotes “square root”.
Ans: 621

38. If f(0)=1 and f(n)= f(n-1)*n, find the value of f(4).
Ans: 24

TCS Placement Paper IV

TCS Placement Paper & Interview On 2010 @ Karakul

Aptitude Paper:

1. Adam sat with his friends in the Chinnaswamy stadium at Madurai to watch the 100 metres running race organized by the Asian Athletics Association. Five rounds were run. After every round half the teams were eliminated. Finally, one team wins the game. How many teams participated in the race?
(a) 30 (b) 32 (c) 41 (d) 54
 
2. (1/3) of a number is 5 more than the (1/6) of the same number?
a) 6 b)36 c)30 d)72
 
3. There are two pipes A and B. If A filled 10 liters in an hour, B can fill 20 liters in same time. Likewise B can fill 10, 20, 40, 80, 160. If B filled in 1/16 of a tank in 3 hours, how much time will it take to fill the tank completely?
a) 9 B) 8 c) 7 d) 6
 
4. Leena cut small cubes of 3 cubic cm each. She joined it to make a cuboid of length 10 cm, width 3 cm and depth 3 cm. How many more cubes oes she need to make a perfect cube?
a) 910 b) 250 c) 750 d) 650
 
5. A lady has fine gloves and hats in her closet- 26 blue, 30 red, and 56 yellow. The lights are out and it is totally dark. In spite of the darkness, she can make out the difference between a hat and a glove. She takes out an item out of the closet only if she is sure that if it is a glove. How many gloves must she take out to make sure she has a pair of each color?
 
6. 10 men and 10 women are there, they dance with each other, is there possibility that 2 men are dancing with same women and vice versa?
a) 22 b) 20 c) 10 d) none
 
7. A game is played between 2 players and one player is declared as winner. All the winnersfrom first round are played in second round. All the winners from second round are played in third round and so on. If 8 rounds are played to declare only one player as winner, how many players are played in first round?
a) 256 b) 512 c) 64 d) 128
 
8. 49 members attended the party. In that 22 are males, 17 are females. The shake hands between males, females, male and female. Total 12 people given shake hands. How many such kinds of such shake hands are possible?
a) 122 b) 66 c) 48 d)1 28
 
9. There is 7 friends (A1, A2, A3….A7).If A1 have to have shake with all without repeat. How many handshakes possible?
a) 6 b) 21 c) 28 d) 7
 
10. 20 men handshake with each other without repetition. What is the total number of handshakes made?
a) 190 b) 210 c) 150 d) 250
 
11. On planet korba, a solar blast has melted the ice caps on its equator. 9 years after the ice melts, tiny planetoids called echina start growing on the rocks. Echina grows in the form of circle, and the relationship between the diameter of this circle and the age of echina is given by the formula d = 4*v (t-9) for t = 9 where d represents the diameter in mm and t the number of years since the solar blast.Jagan recorded the radius of some echina at a particular spot as 7mm. How many years back did the solar blast occur?
a) 17 b) 21.25 c) 12.25 d) 14.05
 
12. A man goes 50Km north , then turned left walked 40Km, then turned right ? In which direction he is?
a) North b) South c) East d) West
 
13. In T.Nagar the building were numbered from 1 to 100.Then how many 4’s will be present in the numbers?
a) 18 b) 19 c) 20 d) 21.
 
14. Ferrari S.P.A is an Italian sports car manufacturer based in Maranello, Italy. Founded by Enzo Ferrari in 1928 as Scuderia Ferrari, the company sponsored drivers and manufactured race cars before moving into production of street-legal vehicles in 1947 as Ferrari S.P.A. Throughout its history, the company has been noted for its continued participation in racing, especially in Formula One where it has employed great success .Rohit once bought a Ferrari. It could go 4 times as fast as Mohan’s old Mercedes. If the speed of Mohan’s Mercedes is 35 km/hr and the distance traveled by the Ferrari is 490 km, find the total time taken for Rohit to drive that distance.
a) 20.72 b) 3.5 c) 238.25 d) 6.18
 
15. A sheet of paper has statements numbered from 1 to 70. For all values of n from 1 to 70. Statement n says ‘ At least n of the statements on this sheet are false. ‘Which statements are true and which are false?
a) The even numbered statements are true and the odd numbered are false.
b) The odd numbered statements are true and the even numbered are false.
c) The first 35 statements are true and the last 35 are false.
d) The first 35 statements are false and the last 35 are false.
 
16. If there are 30 cans out of them one is poisoned if a person tastes very little he will die within 14 hours so if there are mice to test and 24 hours to test, how many mices are required to find the poisoned can?
a) 3 b) 2 c) 6 d) 1
 
17. It is dark in my bedroom and I want to get two socks of the same color from my drawer, which contains 24 red and 24 blue socks. How many socks do I have to take from the drawer to get at least two socks of the same color?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 48 d) 25
 
18. How many 9 digit numbers are possible by using the digits 1,2,3,4,5 which are divisible by 4 if the repetition is allowed?
a) 57 b) 56 c) 59 d) 58
 
19. Given a collection of points P in the plane, a 1-set is a point in P that can be separated from the rest by a line, .i.e the point lies on one side of the line while the others lie on the other side.
The number of 1-sets of P is denoted by n1(P). The minimum value of n1(P) over all configurations P of 5 points in the plane in general position (.i.e no three points in P lie on a line) is
a) 3   b) 5   c) 2   d) 1
Ans: 5
 
20. The citizens of planet nigiet are 8 fingered and have thus developed their decimal system in base 8. A certain street in nigiet contains 1000 (in base   buildings numbered 1 to 1000. How many 3s are used in numbering these buildings?
a) 54 b) 64 c) 265 d) 192
Ans: 192
 
21. Given 3 lines in the plane such that the points of intersection form a triangle with sides of length 20, 20 and 30, the number of points equidistant from all the 3 lines is
a) 1  b) 3  c) 4  d) 0
 
22. Hare in the other. The hare starts after the tortoise has covered 1/5 of its distance and that too leisurely3. A hare and a tortoise have a race along a circle of 100 yards diameter. The tortoise goes in one direction and the. The hare and tortoise meet when the hare has covered only 1/8 of the distance. By what factor should the hare increase its speed so as to tie the race?
a) 37.80  b)8  c) 40  d) 5
Ans: 37.80
 
23. Here 10 programers, type 10 lines with in 10 minutes then 60lines can type within 60 minutes. How many programmers are needed?
a) 16 b) 6 c) 10 d) 60
 
24. Alok and Bhanu play the following min-max game. Given the expression
N = 9 + X + Y – Z
Where X, Y and Z are variables representing single digits (0 to 9), Alok would like to maximize N while Bhanu
would like to minimize it. Towards this end, Alok chooses a single digit number and Bhanu substitutes this for a variable of her choice (X, Y or Z). Alok then chooses the next value and Bhanu, the variable to substitute the value. Finally Alok proposes the value for the remaining variable. Assuming both play to their optimal strategies, the value of N at the end of the game would be
a) 0 b) 27 c) 18 d) 20
 
25. Alice nd Bob play the following coins-on-a-stack game. 20 coins are stacked one above the other. One of them is a special (gold) coin and the rest are ordinary coins. The goal is to bring the gold coin to the top by repeatedly moving the topmost coin to another position in the stack.
Alice starts and the players take turns. A turn consists of moving the coin on the top to a position i below the top coin (0 = i = 20). We will call this an i-move (thus a 0-move implies doing nothing). The proviso is that an i-move cannot be repeated; for example once a player makes a 2-move, on subsequent turns neither player can make a 2-move. If the gold coinhappens to be on top when it’s a player’s turn then the player wins the game. Initially, the gold coinis the third coin from the top. Then
a) In order to win, Alice’s first move should be a 1-move.
b) In order to win, Alice’s first move should be a 0-move.
c) In order to win, Alice’s first move can be a 0-move or a 1-move.
d) Alice has no winning strategy.
 
26. For the FIFA world cup, Paul the octopus has been predicting the winner of each match with amazing success. It is rumored that in a match between 2 teams A and B, Paul picks A with the same probability as A’s chances of winning. Let’s assume such rumors to be true and that in a match between Ghana and Bolivia, Ghana the stronger team has a probability of 2/3 of winning the game. What is the probability that Paul will correctly pick the winner of the Ghana-Bolivia game?
a)1/9    b)4/9    c)5/9    d)2/3
Ans: 5/9
 
27. 36 people {a1, a2, …, a36} meet and shake hands in a circular fashion. In other words, there are totally 36 handshakes involving the pairs, {a1, a2}, {a2, a3}, …, {a35, a36}, {a36, a1}. Then size of the smallest set of people such that the rest have shaken hands with at least one person in the set is
a)12    b)11    c)13    d)18
Ans: 18
 
28. A sheet of paper has statements numbered from 1 to 40. For each value of n from 1 to 40,
statement n says “At least and of the statements on this sheet are true.” Which statements are true and which are false?
a)The even numbered statements are true and the odd numbered are false.
b)The first 26 statements are false and the rest are true.
c)The first 13 statements are true and the rest are false.
d)The odd numbered statements are true and the even numbered are false.
 
29. There are two boxes, one containing 10 red balls and the other containing 10 green balls. You are allowed to move the balls between the boxes so that when you choose a box at random and a ball at random from the chosen box, the probability of getting a red ball is maximized. This maximum probability is
a)1/2    b)14/19     c)37/38 d)3/4
 
30. A circular dartboard of radius 1 foot is at a distance of 20 feet from you. You throw a dart at it and it
hits the dartboard at some point Q in the circle. What is the probability that Q is closer to the center of the circle than the periphery?
a) 0.75    b) 1    c) 0.5    d) 0.25
 
31. A sheet of paper has statements numbered from 1 to 40. For all values of n from 1 to 40, statement n says: ‘Exactly n of the statements on this sheet are false.’ Which statements are true and which are false?
a) The even numbered statements are true and the odd numbered statements are false.
b) The odd numbered statements are true and the even numbered statements are false.
c) All the statements are false.
d) The 39th statement is true and the rest are false.